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And how does this associate with the Mayan Calendar?

It doesn't, because the Mayan Calendar didn't have a leap year like we do. Thus 12-21-2012 for the Mayan calendar is long gone.
 
It doesn't, because the Mayan Calendar didn't have a leap year like we do. Thus 12-21-2012 for the Mayan calendar is long gone.

The Mayan long count calendar was linear, not cyclical. It was not a quantity of years that was used to calculate of the 12/21/12 date, but a number of days.

The Popol Vuh describes the gods first creating three failed worlds, followed by a successful fourth world in which humanity was placed. In the Maya Long Count, the previous world ended after 13 b'ak'tuns, or roughly 5,125 years. The Long Count's "zero date" was set at a point in the past marking the end of the third world and the beginning of the current one, which corresponds to 11 August 3114 BC in the proleptic Gregorian calendar. This means that the fourth world will also have reached the end of its 13th b'ak'tun, or Mayan date 13.0.0.0.0, on 21 December 2012.
 
I've never been good at converting shit.

This article implies that the average temp on the planet decreased by .6 degrees C when this happened before (kind of implying it could happen again).

But when I did a conversion of 0.6 degrees C to F, it said that .6 degrees C equaled almost 34 degrees.

So obviously my math is WAY wrong, or we're COMPLETELY boned.

Shouldn't I have figured out what the increase of 1 total degree C was, and then go with half of that?

So...1 degree change in C is about what....2 degrees F? Of something?

So that would be a decrease of almost half a degree?

Could someone who is smart explain this to me?
 
I've never been good at converting shit.

Too bad. The Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation would give you a grant right now if you were. (New toilet technology).

But when I did a conversion of 0.6 degrees C to F, it said that .6 degrees C equaled almost 34 degrees.

So obviously my math is WAY wrong, or we're COMPLETELY boned.

Shouldn't I have figured out what the increase of 1 total degree C was, and then go with half of that?

So...1 degree change in C is about what....2 degrees F? Of something?

So that would be a decrease of almost half a degree?

Could someone who is smart explain this to me?

I make no claims about being smart, but the rule is that the temperature in F is 32+9/5*C. So if C=0 (freezing), F=32. If C=100 (boiling), F = 212.
A change in 0.6 degrees C (say from X to X+0.6) would be [32 +9/5*(X+.6)] - [32+ 9/5 *X]= 9/5 * 0.6 = 1.08 degrees F.

You converted a temperature (rather than a temperature change) of 0.6 degrees C to F. 0.6 degrees C is 33 degrees F, but a change from 0 degrees C to 0.6 degrees C is a change from 32 degrees F to 33 degrees F, a change of 1 degree F.

barfo
 
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I don't have formulas memorized. I just reason it out:

Water freezes at 32 degrees F. and 0 degrees C.
Water boils at 212 degrees F. and 100 degrees C.
Therefore, there are 180 degrees F. in 100 degrees C.
So 1.8 degrees F. = 1 degree C.

You asked what a change of .6 degree C. converts to in F.
.6 degree C. times 1.8 = 1.08 degrees F.
 
Gotta love the metric system.
 
You people just made my head explode.... (god I hate math)
 
Gotta love the metric system.

Those poor Europeans. Can you imagine trying to read the speed limit signs when you're driving fast? 65 mph would be "SPEED LIMIT 104.60736298317 km/hr." Imagine keeping your eye on the speedometer and trying to hold your speed to exactly that. We are so lucky to live in America.
 
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