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So basically women and slaves, who could note vote, would give districts more power because they were giving more house seats, right? And yet these people could still not vote, thus giving a select few more power. Is it wrong that I draw a conclusion between certain groups that have a lot of children, and thus inflate their amount of house seats, but the children still don't vote?
I believe that only adult males were counted, with slaves counting as 3/5 of a free person. (Not sure how free non-whites/non-Christians were counted...)
Ed O.
