You've read the article to which you linked, right? Per the article, "the measure would allow felony prosecution of people involved in protests that
block transportation and commerce,
cause property damage, threaten jobs and put public safety at risk." From what I see, that falls in line with the existing precedent regarding
regulation of freedom of assembly.
Per the
library of congress, "The First Amendment does not provide the right to conduct an assembly at which there is a
clear and present danger of riot, disorder, or
interference with traffic on public streets, or
other immediate threat to public safety or order.
[13] Statutes that prohibit people from assembling and using force or violence to accomplish unlawful purposes are permissible under the First Amendment.
[14]"
So, are you saying that the congressperson's characterization of the measure is inaccurate?