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We were talking in the theoretical, Chris. If it was decided that abortion was permitted outright for the first two trimesters, but only allowed for medical reasons in the third; and if virtually no third trimester abortions occur at all as was suggested, how does that drastically increase women’s suffering?
I’m well aware that many states will choose to ban all abortions as a result of the recent SCOTUS decision.
Isn't that how it was basically before roe v Wade getting thrown out?