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It looked to me like he did play the ball, not the man. The contact was unfortunate.
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If you go by the letter of the law, yes that's a flagrant 1. The referees should've called that. 2 and the ball. They were probably reluctant to do that because you really want to let the players decide the game.
I however, don't believe the flagrant 1 should even be a call.
My contention is he was making a play on the ball and just couldn't get to it. I don't see one flagrant thing about it. Had I been making the call it would simply be a common foul.
Edit: great question. I love to do this. As a referee (if you want to master your craft) I watch PLENTY of video to analyze basketball plays. It's very fun for me so keep the questions coming!